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Post by mustanggray on Jun 12, 2009 9:51:42 GMT -5
List,
This may have been addressed here before and if so I apologize up front but...
When does the term Texian first appear and in what context? When does the same become commonplace? Any help would be appreciated... thanks in advance!
SMc
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Post by Kevin Young on Jun 12, 2009 21:32:57 GMT -5
Scott-
I am sure you have seen this article which appeared in the TELEGRAPH AND TEXAS REGISTER on November 7, 1835 and is quoting an earlier article published in the New Orleans Bee:
"The proper name for the people of Texas seems to be a matter of doubt or contrariety: some calling the Texians, while others speak or write Texans, Texonians, Texasians, Texicans. We believe that, both by the Mexican and American residents of the country, the name commonly used is Texians; the Mexicans giving it the guttural sound of the Spanish language, as indicated sometimes by x and sometimes by j, Teghians. The sound is not used in the present mode of speaking the English language, although the Irish use it in the word lough, and the Scotch in loch, a lake. The nearest approximation is in such words as Christ. Texians is, therefore, the correct name of the people of Texas; and besides being short, it is perfectly analogous to the usual mode of forming the proper name of nations by the termination in n; as Greece, Grecian Persia, Persian. It may also be considered the euphonious abbreviation of Texasian. But Texonian and Texasite are absurd epithets
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